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# Operations with polynomials — Harder example

Watch Sal work through a harder Operations with polynomials problem.

## Want to join the conversation?

• why couldn't he just do 1/88 - 1/44 and have gotten d as his answer?
• (1/88)-(1/44) would be equal to -(1/88) because 1/44 is equal to 2/88 so it would technically be (1/88)-(2/88) 1-2 = -1 overall equaling -1/88
• There is only one possible answer. The others are not even close!
• exactly. But even if it isn't close, there r ways to get the wrong answers accidentally.
• If I can do the problem in my head, should I trust my abilities or still try to write down some work?
• Well, if you have some time left, you should write down. This will confirm whether the answer is correct or not. If you are running out of time, trust your abilities.
• It's just me or this one is so much easier than the basic example?
• lol this is easier than the basic
• At why do the two y^100s become one?
• We have (1/88)*y^100+(-1/44*y^100) +3/2
so now we are going to add (in this case subtract because the second term is negative) both the like terms i.e (y^100)/88 and (-y^100)/44
The LCM is 88

we get (y-2y)/88
at this point do not forget the 3/2 we have to add
so we get
(-y^100)/88+3/2
which can also be written as
(-1/88)*y^100 + 3/2
which is option 2

Hope this helped you:)
• Why didn't he see the -ve coefficient coming ASAP?
• I'm still kind of confused
• does anyone have some other tips and advice to prepare for the SAT other than Khan Academy?