Question 1

What if parts of the product (the cotton fabric) are produced in another country, but the final product is assembled (the final stitch in the jeans) in the subject country?  Does all of the value of the final product count toward the GDP of the subject country?

Accepted Answer

The cost of the cotton fabric in this case is an investment in the final product (jeans), so it should be subtracted from the cost of the final product. To use the video as an example, imagine if period 1 was replaced with country 1 and period 2 with country 2. The $20 for fabric would count towards the GDP of country 1, and the $50-$20=$30 would count towards the GDP of country 2.

Question 2

How do economists know how much to subtract so that they don't double count anything?

Accepted Answer

Well, if you look at how a company operates, you will find that there is a lot to report to the governamet: about the quantity of goods that they are producing it and to whom they are selling it to: eg. if they are selling bread to the restaurants for the purpose of making sandwiches, than the external auditor will check the tick box in his report that says: not final. If they are selling the bread in their local bakery to consumers directly, that the auditors will check the tick box: final goods! The quantities show on every income statement. And every company is reporting these to the goevrnament for the taxation purposes, so eventually teh governament knows and the institution that calculates GDP will know accuaretly. Regarding the inflated GDP, it can happen, if the company's accountant knows how to "cook the books", and do inacurate reposting in order for the company to pay less taxes. It is illegal but sometimes happen.

Question 3

So this could mean the GDP could be negative?
If I value of an unfinished good at the end of a period is say $100 and the price comes down to $80 in the next term, then the GDP of the next term in question would be negative!

Accepted Answer

GDP cannot be negative at any time. The growth rate of GDP can be negative, this leads to recession and depression cycles. Economists sometimes say two consecutive quarters of negative GDP growth is called a recession and four consecutive is depression.

Question 4

What happens, let's say in a business:
Total expenses for the year : 560,000
Total Revenue for the year: 520,000
What would we add to the GDP? 560k or 520k or do we add -40k?
Thanks in advance

Accepted Answer

I believe GDP would be 520k.  In the previous video the formula is GDP = Firm Revenue = Firm Expenses + Profit.

Firm Revenue = 520k

Firm Expenses + Profit = 560k + -40k = 520k

GDP = 520k

Question 5

In practical terms how do governments apply these principles when measuring GDP for official statistics? They could not track individual products. Is measured GDP revenue of the firms in a nation? If so does that miss several aspects of GDP (i.e. the incomplete products in warehouses that are now considered expenses that will later generate revenue)?

Accepted Answer

As you point out there are several flaws in the measurement of the GDP, but it is still the best measure economists could come up with.

I am not sure what you mean by individual products. All products are measured that can be measured (all firms, big and small alike, have to tell the government how much they produced, so that can be measured). The black market (selling of guns, drugs, etc...) are not measured evidently, because no knows the exact amount of those transactions. The products made and consumed at home (like vegetable from the garden) are not counted either for similar reasons. All other products are counted and part of GDP.
Incomplete products are part of GDP as well, firms have to evaluate how much those products are worth, and later compensate by the real market value if they are sold.

Question 6

That sounds all nice, but what if people wait for the sale to buy their goods. Then the market value is more of a wanted value than the actual market value of the consumer. The market value has a bit of a bias in it. Especially considered dumping goods on the market. Those good have a market value below their own market value.

Accepted Answer

The market value is set by the buyers--it is the price people are willing to pay for an item. For test questions, etc. it will be simplified, but in reality market value is very complicated and changes from day to day and person to person. The prices companies set are what they think people will want to pay--it's just a guess. When things go on sale, it means the company guessed too high. When things sell out, the company probably guessed too low.

*TL;DR: The market value is absolutely the "wanted value" and has less to do with the price a company puts on its goods.*

*TL;DR: The market value is absolutely the "wanted value" and has less to do with the price a company puts on its goods.*

Question 7

How can I know whether a good is a intermediate good or a final goods?

Accepted Answer

An intermediate good is any thing produced that is not going to be sold directly to consumers. A final good is sold directly to consumers (households) as a final product (Buzz Lightyear toys would be a final product but the plastic and dye for the plastic would be intermediate goods).

Question 8

what about assets that a country owns (like mines, minerals, etc). They are also raw materials (but may or may not turn into final products - like the cotton thread may not be bought by anyone to convert into jeans). will that be included in GDP calculation?

Accepted Answer

No, because GPD only counts production ("P"), and such assets have not been produced.

In the example in the video, the cotton that was cultivated has a production value of $10 - but the soil before it was not counted. So, iron ore in a mine is not calculated for GDP - until it is extracted.

One could, instead of "Gross Domestic Product", calculate the "Gross Domestic Wealth", and take there into account all the assets that exist. It's entirely possible, it's just another thing.

Question 9

So poor countries cannot improve their GDP because they can't educate their children so it is low, and it's vice virsa  for rich countries such as the U.S.?

Accepted Answer

That is not the case. In reality, poor countries tend to have higher rates of growth than rich countries. This is mainly because the cost of unskilled labor is cheaper in poorer countries, because the standard of living is lower. That results in workers being more willing to accept lower wages, which means a faster economic growth.

Question 10

Lets say no one purchases the jeans given in the example. Would it's Market Value be 0 dollars or would it be valued at the last stage where an exchange was made?

If everything in that chain of production were owned by the same company and the company didn't sell the jeans would market value be 0?

Accepted Answer

Since the jeans haven't been sold they would not be counted towards the consumption (C) part of GDP. Thus they would not have a market value. However since they have been produced they would still count towards GDP. The place they would show up is in the Investment (I) category. Investment includes inventories, and since the jeans haven't been sold they would still show up in the company's inventory. GDP would increase by the inventory value of the jeans. When the jeans are sold the market value of the jeans is added to the C component of GDP and the inventory value is subtracted from the I component.

This would be the same for any unsold product regardless of who controls the chain of production.

This would be the same for any unsold product regardless of who controls the chain of production.

Macroeconomics

Unit 2: Lesson 1

More on final and intermediate GDP contributions

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